If man says this he's probably just trying to guilt the woman into having sex with him. If the woman says it she's probably attempting to get the guy to pay for dates and show her a good time without her having to demonstrate her feelings for him. Do you consider these two things the same? Just on opposite sides of the spectrum?What is your feelings about sex before marriage?No, I don't find them the same. Saying "if you loved me you'd have sex with me" is manipulation to get sex, with a fair chance of not continuing the relationship afterward. If a dude just wants sex, he can find a hooker.
Saying "not until marriage" is more of a moral value issue, and not meant to string the guy along and get free dates...although that tends to occur if he wants to be with her long term. She's usually not trying to avoid sex though, but to make sure she doesn't get screwed and dumped. No reason she can't pay for some of the dates during the time before marriage anyway, so it could balance out. She can demonstrate her feelings for him in many ways, that don't include sex acts.
As for my feelings about sex before marriage...I won't even seriously date a guy until I know we're well matched sexually. Marriage (prior to having sex) would be out of the question. However, if any guy tried that tacky "If you loved me..." line on me, he'd never get any of "this". 鈽?/div>
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- Being the only answerer is the best way to get the "best answer" points. I agree with what you're saying though. Just wanted other opinions. Thanks.
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